There exist two fundamental theorems of welfare economics. The first states that any competitive equilibrium leads to an efficient allocation of resources. The second states the converse, that any efficient allocation can be sustainable by a competitive equilibrium. Despite the apparent symmetry of the two theorems, in fact the first theorem is much more general than the second, requiring far weaker assumptions.
The first theorem appears to make a case for non-intervention: let the markets do the work and the outcome will be desirable. The theorem is often taken to be an analytical confirmation of Adam Smith's "invisible hand" hypothesis, namely that competitive markets tend toward the efficient allocation of resources. However, the economic concept of efficiency is not the only thing that a society might care about. In particular, the theorem says nothing about the distributional equity of the outcome.
The second theorem states that out of all possible efficient outcomes (of which there may be many) one can achieve any particular efficient outcome by enacting a lump-sum wealth redistribution and then letting the market take over. This appears to make the case that intervention has a legitimate place in policy -- redistributions can allow us to select from among all efficient outcomes for one that has other desired features, such as distributional equity. However, it is unclear how any real-world government might enact such redistributions. Lump-sum transfers are difficult to enforce and virtually never used, and proportional taxes may have large distortionary effects. Additionally, the government would need to have perfect knowledge of consumers' preferences and firms' production functions in order to choose the transfers correctly.
The first fundamental theorem of welfare economics states that any Walrasian equilibrium is Pareto-efficient. The only assumption needed (in addition to complete markets and price-taking behavior) is the relatively weak assumption of local nonsatiation of preferences. In particular, no convexity assumptions are needed. More formally, the statement of the theorem is as follows: If preferences are locally nonsatiated, and if (x*, y*, p) is a price equilibrium with transfers, then the allocation (x*, y*) is Pareto optimal.
Suppose that consumer i has wealth such that where is the aggregate endowment of goods and is the production of firm j.
Preference maximization (from the definition of price equilibrium with transfers) implies:
In other words, if a bundle of goods is strictly preferred to it must be unaffordable at price p. Local nonsatiation additionally implies:
To see why, imagine that but . Then by local nonsatiation we could find arbitrarily close to (and so still affordable) but which is strictly preferred to . But is the result of preference maximization, so this is a contradiction.
Now consider an allocation that Pareto dominates . This means that for all i and for some i. By the above, we know for all i and for some i. Summing, we find:
Because is profit maximizing we know , so . Hence, is not feasible. Since all Pareto-dominating allocations are not feasible, must itself be Pareto optimal.
The second fundamental theorem of welfare economics states that, under the assumptions that every production set is convex and every preference relation is convex and locally nonsatiated, any desired Pareto-efficient allocation can be supported as a price quasi-equilibrium with transfers. Further assumptions are needed to prove this statement for price equilibriums with transfers. We will proceed in two steps: first we prove that any Parento-efficient allocation can be supported as a price quasi-equilibrium with transfers, then we give conditions under which a price quasi-equilibrium is also a price equilibrium.
Let us define a price quasi-equilibrium with transfers as an allocation , a price vector p, and a vector of wealth levels w (achieved by lump-sum transfers) with (where is the aggregate endowment of goods and is the production of firm j) such that:
The only difference between this definition and the standard definition of a price equilibrium with transfers is in statement (ii). The inequality is weak here () making it a price quasi-equilibrium. Later we will strengthen this to make a price equilibrium.
Define to be the set of all consumption bundles strictly preferred to by consumer i, and let V be the union of all . is convex due to the convexity of the preference relation . V is convex because every is convex. Similarly , the union of all production sets plus the aggregate endowment, is convex because every is convex. We also know that the intersection of V and must be empty, because if it were not it would imply there existed a bundle that is strictly preferred to by everyone and is also affordable. This is ruled out by the Pareto-optimality of .
These two convex, non-intersecting sets allow us to apply the separating hyperplane theorem. This theorem states that there exists a price vector and a number r such that for every and for every . In other words, there exists a price vector that defines a hyperplane that perfectly separates the two convex sets.
Next we argue that if for all i then . This is due to local nonsatiation: there must be a bundle arbitrarily close to that is strictly preferred to and hence part of , so . Taking the limit as does not change the weak inequality, so as well. In other words, is in the closure of V.
Using this relation we see that for itself . We also know that , so as well. Combining these we find that . We can use this equation to show that fits the definition of a price quasi-equilibrium with transfers.
Because and we know that for any firm j:
which implies . Similarly we know:
which implies . These two statements, along with the feasibility of the allocation at the Pareto optimum, satisfy the three conditions for a price quasi-equilibrium with transfers supported by wealth levels for all i.
We now turn to conditions under which a price quasi-equilibrium is also a price equilibrium, in other words, conditions under which the statement "if then " imples "if then ". For this to be true we need now to assume that the consumption set is convex and the preference relation is continuous. Then, if there exists a consumption vector such that and , a price quasi-equilibrium is a price equilibrium.
To see why, assume to the contrary and , and exists. Then by the convexity of we have a bundle with . By the continuity of for close to 1 we have . This is a contradiction, because this bundle is preferred to and costs less than .
Hence, for price quasi-equilibria to be price equilibria it is sufficient that the consumption set be convex, the preference relation to be continuous, and for there always to exist a "cheaper" consumption bundle . One way to ensure the existence of such a bundle is to require wealth levels to be strictly positive for all consumers i.
Economics theorems | Welfare economics | General equilibrium and disequilibrium
Wohlfahrtstheoreme | Théorème du bien-être | Teoremi dell'economia del benessere | A jóléti közgazdaságtan két tétele
This article is licensed under the GNU Free Documentation License.
It uses material from the
"Fundamental theorems of welfare economics".
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